A D V E R T I S E M E N T
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Time Allowed : Two
Hours Maximum
Marks : 300
1.Which
one of the following statements is incorrect in respect of Simon�s decisions
making theory?
(a) Deciding is as Important as doing
(b) Decisions are, in the final analysis, composite
(c) Administrative man maximizes
(d) There is always a means-ends relationship
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A D V E R T I S E M E N T
2.
Which of the following statements regarding decision-making are attributable to
Simon?
1. Divorce of ends from means is false.
2. Means also entail value assumptions.
3. Traditional ends-means approach is not logical.
4. Behavior alternative model is superior.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 4
3.
'Decision-making necessitates the location and control of strategic factors,'
this view is
expressed by:
(a) Fayol (b)
Barnard (c) Likert (d) Simon
4.
Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other
labeled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Though the decision making process is an important
variable in the organization situation, it alone is not adequate to explain the
totality of the organization picture.
Reason (R): Decision-making is a process involving emotional, expressive,
rational and instrumental dimensions. In the context of the above two
statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is
the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
5.
The concept of satisfying behavior comes close to the economic concept of :
(a) Maximizing output (b) Optimum
output
(c) Best output. (d) Easily achievable output
6.
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:
List I List II
A. Laissez-faire -Leader 1. Deserter
B. Country-Club-Leader
2. Compromise
C. Task Management Leader 3. Missionary
D. Team Management Leader 4. Executive
5. Autocrat
A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b)
1 3 5 4
(c) 3 1 5 2 (d) 2 1 4 3
7.
Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer:
List I List II
A. Trait theory 1. Exchange process between leaders and
followers
B. Sociometric theory 2. Personality characteristic of a leader
C. Group theory 3. Environmental factors
D. Contingency theory 4. Goals and structure of an organization
5. Facts and values
A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b)
2 4 1 3
(c) 3 4 5 1 (d) 3 2 5 4
8.
Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other
labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Leadership comes from a complex relationship between the
leader and the led conflicts that arise between the organization and its
environment. In the context of the above two statements, which one of the
following is correct ?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is
the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
9.
Which one of the following theories views
leadership as a manipulative function?
(a) Human Relations Theory
(b) Scientific Management Theory
(c) Classical Theory (d) Decision Making Theory
10.
Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other
labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The function of communication is not just to get
something off the mind of the
transmitter.
Reason (R) : Communication must create the desired impact at the
receiving end.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is
correct ?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is
the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
11.
Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other
labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Classical theorists did not take cognizance of the
needs of individuals.
Reason (R) : Need theorists believe that workers are motivated by their
own intrinsic needs.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is
correct ?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is
the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
12.
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:
List I List II
A. ERG theory 1. A.H. Maslow
B. Acquired-Needs 2. Clayton Alderfer
Theory .
C. Hierarchy of Needs 3. David C. McClelland
Theory
D. Equity Theory 4. J. S. Adams
A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 3 1 4
(b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 4 3 1 2 (d) 4 1 3 2
13.
Consider the following statements about Civil Service in a developing society:
1. It should act as an agent of change.
2. It should have concern for social equity.
3. It should have concern for vested interests.
4. It should be politically neutral.
Which of the above are correct ?
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
14.
Which one of the following shows the correct sequence of the four basic steps in
the Position Classification Plan ?
(a) Job analysis, Grouping of
Positions, Standardization, Position allocation
(b) Standardization, Job analysis, Grouping of Positions, Position allocation
(c) Grouping of Position, Job analysis, Position allocation, Standardization
(d) Position allocation, Standardization, Job analysis, Grouping of Positions
15.
Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion {A) and the other
labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Rank classification facilitates literal entry.
Reason (R) : Rank classification facilitates transfers within the
service.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is
correct ?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is
the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
16."
The most illustrious English jurists have been men who have never opened a law
book till after the close of a distinguished academic career�" This statement
was made in favor of
(a) a test of scholastic abilities
for entry into civil services
(b) training civil servants for functional specialization
(c) a test after training of civil servants
(d) a period of probation for civil servants
17.
Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other
labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Recruitment has been regarded as the most important
function of personnel administration.
Reason (R) : All other aspect of personnel administration are dependent
upon right recruitment. In the context of the above two statements, which one of
the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is
the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
18.
Which of the following regarding training in civil
service are true?
1. It should be of a continuous nature.
2. It should be for upgrading the skills.
3. It should be for updating the knowledge.
4. It should be delinked from promotion.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4
19.
Which of the following can be used to
ensure objectivity in assessing the suitability of
candidates for promotion?
1. Prescribing such criteria as qualifications and experience.
2. Laying down qualities to be assessed
3. Requiring reasons to be recorded for denial of promotion.
4. Requiring adverse reports to be given to the employee concerned.
5. Constituting multimember boards for the purpose.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 (b) 1, 2,
3 and 4
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 (d) 2, 3, 4 and 5
20.
According to Lopez, which of the following
are the primary purposes of performance evaluation?
1. Information 2. Control 3. Review. 4. Motivation 5. Development
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2,3
and 4
(c) 1, 4 and 5 (d) 3, 4 and 5
21.
Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other
labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Staff councils are the best device to resolve the
disputes between the government and public employee.
Reason (R) : Cordial relations between the employer and employees are
indispensable for optimum productivity of an organization.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is
correct ?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is
the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
22.
Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other
labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Public employees, like others, should have the right to
demonstrate in order to arouse public conscience about their grievances.
Reason (R) : The government as a model employer is required to provide
fair conditions of service.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is
correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is
the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
23.
Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other
labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The principle of 'fair comparison' for determination of
salaries in the civil service, is NOT acceptable.
Reason (R) : Public Administration has no profit motive.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is
correct ?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is
the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not tile correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
12.
Which of the following are major considerations in salary structuring for civil
service?
1. Ability to pay 2. productivity 3. Adequacy 4. Rationality
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and
3
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
25.
Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other
labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Restrictions on political activities of public employees
are in their own interests. Reason (R) : Neutrality of civil servants
ensures that all of them are treated alike.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is
correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is
the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
26.
Which of the following are included in the principles of anonymity of civil
service?
1. Non-accountability of the civil service to the legislature
2. Civil servants becoming professional experts
3.Application of the doctrine of ministerial responsibility
4. Explaining by civil servants what their departments are doing
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 1,2 and 3. (d) 2, 3 and 4
27.
Which one of the following is a common
objective of the 'Rule of Lapse', 'Sunset Legislation' and 'Zero-Based
Budgeting'?
(a) Economy in expenditure
(b) Legislative control
(c) Review and reauthorization of expenditures
(d) Ensuring achievement of physical targets
28.
Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer:
List I List II
A. The Speaker 1.Fixes the time limit for discussion of Demands
B. The Finance Minister 2. Examines the financial operation of the executive
C. The President 3. Makes mention in the Parliament about the
annual financial statement
D. The C & AG 4. Participates in the formulation of Five
Year Plan
A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 4 3 2 (b) 4
1 2 3
(c) 1 4 2 3 (c) 4 1 3 2
29.
Given below are two statements, one labeled
as R. Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Re-appropriation is an executive act.
Reason (R) : Re-appropriation is permissible to meet the expenditure in a
new service.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is
correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is
the correct explanation
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
30.
In the context of the budget, the term guillotine is used with reference to
(a) Appropriation bill
(b) Consolidated fund charges
(c) Voting of Demands
(d) Finance Bill
31.
Which of the following form part of the budget in India?
1. Estimated income and expenditure for the following year
2. Revised figures for the preceding year
3. Revised estimates for the current year
4. Actual figures for the previous year
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 3 and 4
32.
Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other
labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The Ministry of Finance is no longer the central agency
to exercise control over finances.
Reason (R) : Administrative ministries demand greater delegation of
financial powers from the Finance Ministry for speedy implementation of
development programmes.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is
correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is
the Correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(a) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
33.
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:
List I List II
A. Voting on the 1. Prior consent of the demands for grants
President
B. Budget 2. Not subject to vote of Parliament
C. Money Bill 3. Al instrument of socioeconomic change
D. Charged Expenditure 4. Enactment of Budget
5. Public Accounts Committee
A B C D A B C D
(a) 4 3 1 2 (b)
3 4 2 5
(c) 1 3 4 2 (d) 1 4 3 2
34.
In the h1dian budgetary system, pending the passage of Finance Bill in the
Parliament, the provisional collection under Tax Act, 1931 empowers the
government to collect taxes for a period of
(a) 50 days (b) 60 days
(c) 75 days (d) 90 days
35.
Which of the following are included in Budgetary Control by executive?
1. Allotment
2. Apportionment
3. Audit
4. Sanctions
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2,3 and 4 (b) 1,2 and
4
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 3 and 4
36.
Which one of the following is NOT the occasion for criticizing the
administration in the Lok Sabha?
(a) General discussion on the budget
(b) Voting on demands for grants
(c) Motion of tanks to the President
(d) Discussion on the finance Bill
37.
Which one of the following is NOT a function of the Committee on Subordinate
Legislation? (a) To evolve a
systematic pattern of the terms of delegation ,
(b) To improve the methods of publicity of the rules
(c) To lay down rules and regulations on the table of the House
(d) To achieve uniformity in rule-making procedures
38.
Given below are two statements, one labeled
as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The Legislature exerts authority over administration
through the appropriation process.
Reason (R) : The gross amount of the appropriation determines the volume
of official activity and an itemized appropriation act may leave little or no
administrative discretion.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is
correct ?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is
the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explaT1ation of A
(b) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
39.
Which of the following are tools of executive
control over administration?
1. Budget 2. Civil Service Code
3. Audit by C & AG 4. Rule-making power
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
40.
The most important device of supplying
power to the judiciary to invalidate a Statute in India is provided by:
(a) The Directive Principles of State
Policy
(b) The Fundamental Rights
(c) Articles 350 and 351
(d) Prerogative Writs
41.
Under which of the following circumstances
judicial intervention in administration is justified? 1. When there is abuse of
discretion
2. When there is honest difference of opinion
3. When there is error of law
4. When there is lack of jurisdiction
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
42.
The specific purpose of the proposed institution of Lok Pal is to
(a) strengthen legislative control
over administration
(b) supplement Judicial Control over administration
(c) protect and promote insufficient administration
(d) enable effective popular control over administration
43.
Which of the following are emphasized by Riggs to compare administrative
systems?
1. Model building
2. Cultural Dimension
3. Ecological perspective
4. Structure-functional approach
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
44.
In which one of the following countries is control over the administration
through questions and motions to 'no confidence' NOT possible ?
(a) Pakistan (b) Britain
(c) USA (d) France
45.
Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other
labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Comparative Public Administration is an attempt to study
administrative systems in their ecological settings.
Reason (R) : Socio-economic context has a bearing on administration.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is
correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is
the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
46.
The major conceptual achievement of the
Civil Service Reform Act of 1978 in the USA is the vindication of the
(a) inadequate validity of the merit
principle
(b) separation of managerial, political and legal aspects of personnel
administration
(c) defect of bipartisan nature of the erstwhile C. S. Commission
(d) merits of the theory of checks and balances
47.
Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer:
List I List II
A. Northgate Trevelyan Report 1. Organization of permanent civil
service
B. The Pendleton Act 2. Training of Police Personnel
C. Hoover Commission Report 3. Civil Service Examination reform
D. Satish Chandra Committee Report 4. Political activities of civil servants
5. Introducting
Merit System:
A B C D A B C D
(a) 5 4 2 3 (b) 2
3 4 1
(c) 1 5 4 3 (d) 1 5 3 2
48.
Given below are two statements, one labeled
as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The Soviet bureaucracy had a subordinate relationship
with the Communist Party.
Reason (R) : The functions of the Soviet Government used to be controlled
and directed by the Communist Party.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is
correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is
the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
49.
Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) What the Treasury does in U.K. is
done.
(b) What the Treasury does in U.K. is shared by three agencies in U.S.A.- The
Treasury, the
Office of Personnel Management and the Merit Systems protection Board.
(c) What the Treasury does in U.K. is done by the U.S. Treasury.
(d) There are Civil Service Commissions in both the U.K. and the U.S.A
50.
Which of the following are distinct features of the British Civil Service as
compared with the French Civil Service?
1. Dominance of generalist administrators.
2. Anonymity of central government officers.
3. Restriction on political rights of civil servants.
4. Appointment of the members of the British Administrative class as Chief
Executive officers of Local Authorities.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and
4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
51.
The term 'Shadow Cabinet' in Britain refers to
(a) the Cabinet that is still in the
process of formation
(b) the Cabinet Committee that functions under the guidance of the Cabinet
(c) a group of opposition party members with assigned roles
(d) the team of intellectuals advising the Cabinet
52.
In which one of the following countries can a citizen / get speedy justice
against the wrongful acts of officials?
(a) India (b)
France (c) USA (d) England
53.
Which of the following statements are true of Public Administration in France?
1. The Prefect is now stripped off of much of his executive power and is
rechristened 'Commissioner of the Republic'
2. The Prefect is now given more political and financial powers under a scheme
of devolution of powers to communes.
3. The regional prefects' main role is to coordinate economic planning.
4. The Mayors of local communes are independent of the state officials.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4
54.
Which of the following factors contributed to the movement for comparative
studies in public administration?
1. the attainment of independence by a large number of former colonial
societies.
2. The need to extend the scope of public administration as a discipline.
3. The emphasis by the United Nations as greater interaction among its members.
4. The involvement of a large number of scholars and practitioners of
administration in the post-war reconstruction programmes.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and
3
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
55.
Which one of the following influenced the shaping of British administration in
India ?
(a) Fabianism (b)
Utilitarianism (c) Pluralism (d) Mercantilism
56.
The Central Board of Revenue has been set up by
(a) the Constitution
(b) the order of the Finance Minister
(c) a Law of Parliament
(d) a Presidential order
57.
Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of Indian administration?
(a) Uniformity
(b) Decentralization
(c) Diarchy
(d) Independent Judiciary
58.
The expression 'Prime Ministerial form of government' indicates a form of
government in which (a) the Prime
Minister is directly elected by the people
(b) the Prime Minister heads a coalition
(c) the Prime Minister is the Head of the State
(d) the Prime Minister is no longer the first among equals but is dominant
59.
Which of the following functions are performed
by the Central Secretariat?
1. Issuing proclamations of Emergency.
2. Policymaking and its modification.
3. Work concerning legislation.
4. Exercising financial controls.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4
60.
The Staff Selection Commission is
(a) an 'attached office' under the
Ministry of Personnel
(b) a 'subordinate office' of the UPSC
(c) an autonomous body under the Ministry of Personnel
(d) a statutory body under the UPSC
61.
Which of the following statement regarding the Planning Commission is NOT true?
1. It is a body consisting of only specialists.
2. It has been regarded as a Super Cabinet.
3. It consists of both generalists and specialist.
4. It consists of nominees of the National Development Council.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
62.
One of the functions of the Planning Commission is to
(a) accordance among the states
(b) recommend Plan Grants for public purpose
(c) supervise the implementation of deregulation
(d) recommend grants-in-aid of revenue
63.
Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
(a) The Planning Commission prepares
the plans in consultation with Union Ministries and State Governments
(b) The various central ministries and state governments draw up their own plans
according to their needs irrespective of the allocations of funds
(c) An effort is made through negotiations and discussions to arrive at an
agreement among the central ministries and state governments on priorities for
planned development.
(d) The Draft of the Ave Year Plan prepared by the Planning Commission is placed
before the National Development Council for its approval.
64.
Which of the following are NOT subject to the detailed audit of the Comptroller
and Auditor General of India?
1. All Cooperative Societies.
2. All Public Corporations.
3. All civil expenditure.
4. All defence expenditure.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
65.
The Comptroller and Auditor General of India submits three reports to the
Parliament/State Legislatures. Which one of the following reports does NOT come
under that category?
(a) Audit Report on Finance Accounts
(b) Audit Report on Appropriation Accounts
(b) Audit Report on Capital Accounts
(d) Audit Report on Commercial and Public Sector Enterprises.
66.
Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other
labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Proper maintenance of accounts of the public funds and
their audit by an agency independent of the executive control are essential for
an efficient administration of public finances. Reason (R) : The spending
authorities should produce receipts or vouchers concerning every paisa which
they spend.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is
correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is
the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
67.
Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of a government company?
(a) It has an audit board of its own
(b) It is a body corporate
(c) It is owned by the state
(d) Its employees are not civil servants.
68.
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:
List I List II
A. Organized as a major sub-division 1. Public Corporation
of a department of government
B. Represents a combination of 2. Control Board
government ownership and business
management
C. The Articles of Association are 3. Departmental Undertaking
drawn up by the government and
can be revised by it
D. Devised for multi-purpose project 4. Government Company
A B C D A B C D
(a) 4 1 3 2 (b) 3
1 4 2
(c) 3 2 4 1 (d) 4 2 3 1
69.
Given below are two statements, one labeled as
Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A): There is a feeling that the institution of All India
Services needs reconsideration. Reason (R): Members of the. All India
Services foster national integration, as they are recruited from different parts
of the country.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is
correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is
the correct explanation of A .
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not ti1e correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
70.
Which of the following are the features of All
India Services?
1. They are common to both Central and State Governments.
2. They are common to all offices of the Government of India throughout the
country.
3. The concept of All India Service is based on Tenure System.
4. The members of All India Services are representatives 'of the Central
Government.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
correct
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 3
71.
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:
List I List II
(Organisation) (Function)
A. Ministry of Home Affairs 1. Management of IAS
B. U.P.S.C. 2. Recruitment to Class III
(Non-Technical) Posts
C. Ministry of Personnel 3. Cadre controlling of I.P .S.
D. Staff Selection commission 4. Recruitment to Class II posts
5. Advising on inter-service
promotions
A B C D A B C D
(a) 3 5 2 1 (b)
3 5 1 2
(c) 1 3 5 4 (d) 5 2 3 1
72.
Which of the following statements are NOT correct?
1. A Member of UPSC holds office for a term of six years or until he attains the
age of 65 years 2. A Member of UPSC is eligible for reappointment for the same
post for a second term.
3. A Member of UPSC can accept employment under Central State government after
retirement. 4. A Member of UPSC can accept employment as a member of state
P.S.C. after retirement. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) l and 2 (b) 1 and 4
(c) 1,.2 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4
73.
Which of the following ensure functional autonomy of the UPSC?
1. the Chairman and Members can be removed only on the grounds given in the
Constitution.
2. The expenditure of the Commission is a charge on the Consolidated Fund of
India.
3. The Members and Chairman are allowed to accept jobs after retirement.
4. The Chairman and Members being civil servants function in a neutral manner.
Select the correct using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
74.
Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other
labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A): For IAS probationers, "sandwich " training method is
employed.
Reason (R) : Field training is useful for providing an insight into the
actual administrative situation. In the context of the above two
statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is
the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
75.
Given below are two statements, one labeled as
Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A) : A generalist may be defined as a public servant who does
not have a special background and is easily transferable to any department.
Reason (R): A generalist by virtue of his general knowledge is capable of
working in any department.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is
correct?
(a) Both A and R are hue and R is the
correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
76.
Given below are two statements, one labeled as
Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Civil servants are influenced in their work by political
executives because they know the latter have support in the Cabinet.
Reason (R) : Civil servants put up only proposals as are likely to be
approved by the Ministers. In the context of the above two statements, which one
of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are hue and R is the
correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
77.
Which of the following are the functions of the Chief Minister?
1. To communicate to the Central Government an the decisions of the Council of
Ministers relating to the administration of the State.
2. To instruct District Connectors to carry out and the decisions of the Council
of Ministers relating to the administration of the State.
3. To communicate to the Governor an decisions of the Council of Ministers
relating to the administration of the State.
4. To communicate to the Governor an decisions of the Council of Ministers
regarding proposals for legislation.
Select the correct using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 4
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
78.
Which one among the following is NOT the function of the State Secretariat?
(a) To assist the Minister in the
formulation of policy
(b) To act as a channel of communication between one Government and an other
(c) To prepare drafts of legislation to be introduced in the Assembly
(d) To assist the legislature in its secretarial work
79.
Which of the following are the positions enjoined upon the Chief Secretary of a
State?
1. Secretary to the Cabinet.
2. Chief Advisor to the Chief Minister.
3. Chief of the Secretaries.
4. Head of the Civil Service:
5. Representative of the State in all legal matters.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2,
3 and 4
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3, 4 and 5
80.
Which of the following statements are true?
1. The territorial jurisdictions of the regional end district offices are
coterminous
2. The territorial jurisdictions of regional offices of different departments
are not coterminous.
3. The territorial jurisdiction of regional offices of the central and state
governments are one and the same.
4. The territorial jurisdictions of the regional and district offices are
different.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
81.
In which one of the following districts has the 'Virtuals to Field' programme been
introduced?
(a) Sirmour (H.P.)
(b) Ahmedabad (Gujarat)
(c) Ahmednagar (Maharashtra)
(d) Sambalpur (Orissa)
82.
Which one of the following is NOT a function of Deputy Commissioner/District
Collector?
(a) Maintenance of law and order
(b) Survey and Settlement
(c) Trial of cases under IPC
(d) Enforcing provisions of Cr. P.C.
83.
Which of the following are provided for in the 73rd Constitutional Amendment?
1. Elections through Chief Election Commissioner.
2. Devolution of functions by State government.
3. Creation of State Finance Commission.
4. Setting up a three-tiered Indian Federation.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
84.
Which of the following are true regarding the I.RD.P?
1. It is Uni.-dimensional in nature.
2. It adopts a holistic approach.
3. It calls for a high level of coordination.
4. It is mainly a poverty alleviation programme.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(a) 1,2 and 3 (b) 1,3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
85.
Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other
labeled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Multiplicity of authorities in urban areas has added to
the problems of citizens.
Reason (R) : New special purpose agencies have been created for urban
functions.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is
correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is
the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
86.
Which of the following cause the creation of slums in large urban centers?
1. Increased economic activity in urban areas
2. Per capita income being higher in metro cities.
3. Increased government regulations for urban development.
4. Out migration from small urban centres.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
87.
Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other
labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : State government are obliged to appoint a State Finance
Commission under the Constitution. .
Reason (R) : The quantum of money to be paid annually by the state
governments to the local bodies is determined by the State Finance Commission.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is
correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is
the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
88.
Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other
labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The Directorates of Local Bodies in States . supervise
the working of Municipal Corporations.
Reason (R) : The State governments need to exercise control over all the
local bodies.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is
correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R. is
the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
89.
Which of the following are provided for by the 74th Constitutional
Amendment in respect of Municipal Corporations?
1. Seats to be filled by direct elections on the basis of wards.
2. Reservation of seats for SC/ST.
3. Reservation of seats for backward classes.
4. One-third reservation of seats for women.
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
90..Gerald
Caiden has mentioned that the crucial role as assumed by public administration
in contemporary society is
(a) Institutionalization of
Socio-economic change
(b) Strengthening of roots of democracy
(c) Demoralizing administration
(d) Strengthening of human relations in administration
91. From the Value-Fad stand point, various
approaches to the study of Public Administration may be classified as
(a) empirical and normative approach
(b) philosophical and historical approaches
(c) legal and behavioral approaches
(d) structural and ecological approaches
92.
Administration is politics since it must be responsive
to the public interest." This statement was made by
(a) L. Urwick (b) John
M. Piffner
(c) Paul H. Appleby (d) L. Gulick
93.
Which of the following statements regarding "New Public Administration " are
true?
1. It rejects that public administration which is value-free.
2. It rejects politics-administration dichotomy.
3. It rejects that public administration which is not properly involved in
policy.
4. It is more or less bureaucratic and hierarchical.
Which of the above are true?
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
94.
In which of the following directions does public
administration move at present?
1. Multi-foci in study.
2. Mini-paradigms.
3. New Public Administration.
4. Locus and focus approach.
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 4 only
95.
Consider the following statements about the post-World War" writing in Public
Administration?
1. These seek to undertake cross-cultural studies.
2. These seek to evolve a true science of administration based on
interdisciplinary approach.
3. These seek to develop appropriate methodology.
4. These seek to analyze all types of social phenomena.
Which of the above are true?
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
96. In
the evolution of Public Administration there has been a shift in emphasis during
successive periods. In this context which of the following pairs are correctly
matched?
1. 1887-1926............. Crisis of Identity
2. 1910-1920............. Scientific Management
3. 1920-1947.............. Human Relations
4. 1948-1966.............. Behaviorism
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and
3
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
97.
Which one of the following pairs is NOT
correctly matched?
(a) Public Administration
---Collective activity organisation and mannagement of men and material (b)
Development Administration ---Change and Administrative Responsiveness,
Rationality, Management-Worker relations .
(c) Comparative Public Administration--- From ideograph to nomothetic
(d) New Public Administration--- Relevance, values, social equity, change
98.
Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other
labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The principal objective of scientific management is to
secure maximum prosperity for the employer, coupled with maximum prosperity for
employees.
Reason (R) : The philosophy of Scientific Management is that there is no
inherent conflict in the interests of the employer , workers and consumers.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is
correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is
the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
99.
According to Taylor, Mental Revolution is
(a) substitution of war by peace and
cooperation instead of strife
(b) co-operation instead of strife and efficiency device
(c) efficiency device and piece-rate system
(d) substitution of war by peace and piece-rate system
100.
Which one of the following statements is incorrect respect of Taylor?
(a) His view of man was too
mechanistic
(b) He upheld the carrot and stick approach
(c) He was preoccupied with efficiency
(d) He stood for creative relationship with work
101.
Which of the following are categories of persons', categorized in an
organisation by Max Weber?
Those who
1.are accustomed to obey commands.
2. are personally interested in continuing domination.
3. evince interest in promoting change.
4. keep them in readiness to perform changing functions.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
102.
Give the below are two statements one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other
labeled as Reason (R)
Assertion (A) : The developing countries bureaucracy plays a dominant
role.
Reason (R) : Weber brought out the merits of bureaucratic system. .
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is
correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is
the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
103.
The 'gangplank' idea is found in the works of
(c) Fayol (b) Follett
(c) Barnard (d) Simon
104.
The classical theory of organisation is known as mechanistic theory because
(a) it does not explain the dynamics
of organizational behavior
(b) it establishes a formally declared pattern of relationship
(c) it underestimates human factors and oversimplifies motivation
(d) it treats organization as a closed system
105.
Mayo made out a case for skills that are:
(a) human and interactive
(b) social and adaptive
(c) scientific and normative
(d) technical and empirical
106.
Given below are two statements, one labeled as
Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A) : Mayo's recommendations are immensely useful not only in
the industrial sector but also in 'the administrative system of a state.
Reason (R) : Human beings in all kinds of Organization have some common
social needs, feelings, attitudes and desires.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is
correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is
the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
107.
Match List I with List II and select the correct
answer:
List I (Approaches) List II (Defining Features)
A. Behavioral 1. Descriptive
B. Systems 2. Evolutionary
A. Historic 3. Interact ional
D. Institutional 4. Scientific
A B C D A B C D
(a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 4
3 1 2
(c) 3 4 2 1 (c) 3 4 1 2
108.
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:
List I List II
A. Distinction between 1. Herbert A. Simon
obedience and acceptance
B. Distinction between �economic 2. Chester Barnard
man� and �administrative man�
C. Distinction between 3. F. W. Taylor
�charismatic� �traditional�
and �legal rational authority�
D. Distinction between 4. Max Weber
�principles� and �mechanics
of management�
5. H. Fayol
A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 1
3 5 2
(c) 2 3 4 1 (d) 1 3 2 5
109.
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:
List I List II
A. Top-down Theory 1. A H. Maslow
B. Bottom-up Theory 2. F. W. Taylor
C. Self actualization Theory 3. Norbert Wiener
D. Cybernetic Theory 4. C. Barnard
A B C D A B C D
(a) 4 2 3 1 (b)
2 4 1 3
(c) 4 2 1 3 (d) 2 4 3 1
110.
Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other
labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : In systems approach, the process and the course of action
is adapted to suit the requirements of the situation.
Reason (R) : The organization has a social purpose' and is a part of the
prevailing environment. In the context of the above two statements, which one of
the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is
the correct explanation of A .
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
111.
Which of the following are implied by Hierarchy?
1. Higher levels cannot take disciplinary action against subordinates.
2. Higher levels have the freedom to carry out the operations.
3. Upper levels set the goals to be pursued.
4. Lower levels take action to pursue the goals.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
112.
The scalar principle refers to as
(a) classification of civil servants
according to their scales of pay
(b) grading of duties according to the degree of authority
(c) organizing the relations between members of 'line' and 'staff agencies
(d) governing the allocation of persons, to the different levels in the
hierarchy
113.
Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other
1abeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Unity of command means that the entire organization has
only one boss and one plan of action to promote efficiency and effectiveness.
Reason (R) : The concept of unity of command is proposed as substitute to
the "Functional foremanship"
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is
correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is
the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
114.
Given below are two statements, one labeled as
Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) .
Assertion (A) : Span of control depends on personal qualities, skills and
experience.
Reason (R) : Empirical studies have found that the span of control will
be small if organizational units are located at different places.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is
correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is
the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true. but R- is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
115.
Which one of the following is NOT a
proposition in Theory X ?
(a) Man wishes to avoid
responsibility
(b) Man has an inherent liking for work
(c) Man must be coerced for working
(d) Man must be threatened with punishment
116.
Who among the following do NOT up hold the
acceptance theory of authority ?
1. Taylor
2. Fayol
3. Barnard
4. Simon
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a} l and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) l and 4
117.
Given below are .two statements, one
labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Coordination can be achieved by establishing direct
Personal contact with the people concerned
Reason (R) : Inter-personal communication facilitates quick resolution of
differences.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of. the following is
correct?
(a) Both A and R are true .and R is
the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
118.
Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other
labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Delegation is not a process of abdication.
Reason (R) : The delegate does not shirk his responsibility.
In the context of the above two statements, Which one of the following is
correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is
the correct explanation of A .
(b) Both A and R are true .but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
119.
Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other
labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Supervision involves inspecting the activities of the
subordinates so that they work towards the goal of the organization.
Reason (R) : Individuals have a tendency to work for the achievement of
their own ends.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is
correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is
the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
120.
Given below are two statements, one labeled
as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A) : Division between one and Staff cannot be watertight.
Reason (R) : Authority is more a matter of influence rather than of command.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is
correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is
the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true